banner

banner

The Myth of Christian Patriarchy

Colossians 3:22
"Slaves, obey in all things your masters according to the flesh; not with eyeservice, as menpleasers; but in singleness of heart, fearing God" -KJV

I have often heard that the bible tells women to obey their husbands and therefor Christianity is a patriarchal religion.

Although it is true there are scriptures which tell wives to obey their husbands, in at least three places there are also scriptures, like the one above, that tell slaves to obey their masters.

In the early part of the nineteenth century, a form of political activism arose called the abolitionist movement.  The goal was to change federal laws making slavery illegal.  This movement was comprised predominantly of fundamentalist Christians.  If the bible explicitly tells slaves to obey their masters, how could an abolitionist consider themselves a fundamental christian?  The two seem to be opposed.

They are not when the scriptures are looked at in context.  The same can be said for scriptures where wives are told to obey their husbands.

Galatians 3:28:
"There is neither Jew nor Greek, there is neither bond nor free, there is neither male nor female: for ye are all one in Christ Jesus." -KJV

The Christian view is that all people are equal.  This was a very radical and destabilizing view in the first century.  Paul was queried if he expected Christians to combat these social inequalities.  His response in several places was an unequivocal 'no'.

As a way to not deter unbelievers from seeking salvation from the new Christian religion, he instructed believers who were all on equal footing to:
  1. not eat meat sacrificed to idols since it would offend a Jew
  2. wives to obey their husbands in patriarchal communities
  3. slaves to obey their masters in communities where slavery existed
None of these were christian principles.  Abolitionists recognized these contexts.  In a matriarchal community, it would be expected that men would follow the leadership of the women over them.

Romans 13:3
"For rulers are not a terror to good works, but to the evil. Wilt thou then not be afraid of the power? do that which is good, and thou shalt have praise of the same." -KJV

Paul tells believers to defer to whatever communal authority exists over them.

However, the principle reason given for linking Christianity to patriarchy is the words of Jesus where he tells his followers to pray with the words "Our Father".  Why would Jesus use the masculine in reference to Godde.  He does so in all references of his prayer.

Jesus is the son of Godde.  His mother was by his side through almost all of his life and ministry.  There are no accounts of him ever giving deference to his step father Joseph.

There are scriptural accounts of him giving deference to his mother.  He communicated to his mother face to face.  He communicated to his father through prayer.  The divine wisdom which made him Christ was the feminine Sophia wisdom / Holy Spirit, according to early church doctrine.  This is accounted with the spirit descending on him like a dove during his baptism in the river Jordan.

In prayer, he directed his followers to pray as he did.  For him, this was to his father.  He could not direct his followers to pray to his mother.  She was standing among them.  That would have led to confusion.

I do not believe Jesus intended to establish a patriarchal religion with the Our Father prayer where women were expected to be subjugated to the will of men.  He himself gave deference to his mother.

Instead, he was relaying to his followers how he prayed as a model for them to follow.